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| MagiMaster |
 Posted: Wed Jun 18, 2008 3:18 am Post subject: Chaos theory question |
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Forum Senior
Joined: 16 Jul 2006
Posts: 323
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| I understand the basic idea of chaos theory: that small changes in initial value lead to large changes in the result. Most applications of chaos theory that I've seen though, such as the weather, diverge over time. Is it possible to have a chaotic system that isn't time dependent? Is it possibly for a function, f:A->B, to be considered chaotic is A is finite? What if both A and B are finite? Thanks. |
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| sunshinewarrior |
| Posted: Wed Jun 18, 2008 7:43 am Post subject: |
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Forum Ph.D.
Joined: 26 Sep 2007
Posts: 979
Location: London
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As far as I know chaos theory specifies:
1) It is iterative - if not in time, then at least in space (or mathematical space)
2) The mapping function whereby the 'new' value of A is the previous value of f(A), relates to values of A, B etc that are definitely finite. Some of them, as in the Mandelbrot set, may however be imaginary, but even this is not necessary. |
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| river_rat |
| Posted: Wed Jun 18, 2008 11:01 pm Post subject: |
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Forum Ph.D.
Joined: 01 Jun 2006
Posts: 1047
Location: South Africa
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Chaos theory deals with dynamic systems, so something has to be dynamic. I think the answer to the finite questions are no and no, but thats just gut feel.
_________________
As is often the case with technical subjects we are presented with an unfortunate choice: an explanation that is accurate but incomprehensible, or comprehensible but wrong. |
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| MagiMaster |
| Posted: Sat Jun 21, 2008 4:02 am Post subject: |
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Forum Senior
Joined: 16 Jul 2006
Posts: 323
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| Good points. Thanks for the replies. I still have some questions, but, for the moment, I can't think of how to phrase them. |
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